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/pol/ - Politically Incorrect


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File: 1791739459818003-1.jpg (563 KB, 1600x1143)
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When did Northern Europe fully overtake Southern Europe?
During the high middle ages the most advanced places in europe were the mediterreanean areas which were much more developed due to previous greek/roman urbanization like Spain (under the Caliphate of Cordoba), Italy (under the various Italian city-states like Milan, Genoa, Venice, Pisa) and Greece (under the Byzantine Empire) while northern Europe wasn't as advanced outside of some cities like Paris and Cologne
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>>544289573
Early 1600’s, Dutch republic and then southern Europe was basically weak after the earthquake that destroyed Naples in 1650 and the defeat of Spain by France in 1658.
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>>544289573
Bruh... read some Braudel (US lectures)
North did piracy on South and started to flood the markets with imitations of Southern products. Aparat from that Netherlands reached premiums from villages so densly packed around each other that it stated to count as urbanisation, and there was a lot of additional in-home craftmanship in the Northern France/Belgium/Netherlands probably proped up by the winter boredom.
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>>544290267
Ultimately it is about war. The south lost a few battles that they shouldn’t have lost.
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>>544290267
Further there was again the swing toward South - Italian bankers and Spanish monarchy as their clients, and then again the center moved to Netherlands, then also England get rid of influence of German Hanza from London and started to cash on ommiting middle-mans, the rest should be familiar to you. I just add that there was a phase of France-GBritain rivalry and France lost encircled from colonies and due to less investments due to less trust of business people in France in stability after the first grand revolution
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>>544290362
There is small error here - at that time war was strange - very slow and inefficient due to domination of mercaneries. If Filip II would innovate insted of relying on extensive resources he would win the world. But objectively the biggest fuck-up was not intervenying in China at the end of Ming dynasty.
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why the fuck do people keep making the same thread over and over?
the last two got no replies
no one cares, nigger
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>>544290891
Siege of Leiden 1574, Spanish defeat. Dutch wouldn’t exist if Spain had won. Spain lost because it was basically bankrupt, even winning lepanto in 1571, that massive fleet was built after a previous Spanish fleet was destroyed in 1561 by the Turks. Then we have the Italian wars that spent a lot of treasure, plus English piracy, and bribing the papacy, it all added up.

I’m curious by what you meant by the Ming dynasty. Please explain further.
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>>544291177
>Empresa de China
There was perfect moment for that when Manuchus (Qing) started the conquer of Ming China, for a moment Ming rump states in South China wanted even to christianise in exchange for help from Europe.
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>>544291625
Is that so? I was under the impression that jesuits financed the Manchu conquest to steal Chinese technology like the seed drill and winnowing machine among other things. Even possibly steam water pumps and steam engines.
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>>544290267
>>544290632
>>544290891
>>544291625
Why is there a Pollack in this thread?
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>>544291780
Hello to You too my half-slavic brorther with 300 years head-start in civilisation-building
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>>544291755
Interesting, never heard about that part, but for sure conquest insted of civilisation drain would keep Spain in the game at least up to 20th century
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>>544289573
northern Europe wasn't really developed until Norway found oil
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>>544291780
is Lithuania northern Europe?



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