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Perfect primes are primes with only 1 divisor
using (2^(p-1))((2^p)-1) and setting p as 0 and 1would yield 0 and 1.
0 is the first even perfect prime number.
1 is the only odd perfect prime number.
continuing it would yield the rest of the perfect numbers, so wouldn't 0 and 1 be perfect numbers according to the equation without the exclusion? if the conjecture was if and only if it only has 1 divisor it is then perfect by definition. if the rule was set by man and not by math would that not break the entire case of mathematics being self-governing? Share your thoughts so I can feed my curiosity.
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>>17038144
Come again?
>>
>>17038152
Perfect number is a number who's divisor is its sum.
Prime number is a number who's divisor is one and itself or two numbers.
So by observation. A perfect prime number would be a number who's only divisor is itself .
So 0 and 1 are perfect prime numbers.
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>>17038159
>Perfect number is a number who's divisor is its sum.
No, start here.
>>
>>17038144
>IF random nonsense
>AND more random nonsense
>THEN absolute schizobabble with no rhyme or reason or any relation to anything whatsoever
Boy I love math
>>
what's nonsense?
1 is divisible by 1 and itself so prime number.
1 is also a sum of 1 so perfect number
therefore perfect prime number
I guess 0 isn't prime since you can't divide it by 1
So maybe 0 is just a perfect number since adding 0 is just 0
Not sure what you mean by nonsense since they already built an entire equation for it
2^(p-1) * (2^p -1) and if you put the values in they really do make 0 and 1 as perfect numbers.
>>
>>17038144
>>17038159
>>17038192
0 doesn't have only one divisor.
It has only one non-divisor. Literally every number divides 0 except for 0 itself.
>stop taking the schizo thread seriously!
also 1 isn't prime either, because it's a unit, but that's somehow the less egregious thing going on here
>>
>>17038198
>0 doesn't have only one divisor.
It has only one non-divisor. Literally every number divides 0 except for 0 itself.
I guess zero is nothing then neither prime nor perfect.
Why would zero not divide by zero? wouldn't that just be one since it divides by itself?
>also 1 isn't prime either, because it's a unit, but that's somehow the less egregious thing going on here
Then 1 is a super perfect prime because it only has 1 as its divisor.
>>
>>17038192
See >>17038163
>>
>>17038202
Any number divided by itself = 1
0 divided by any number = 0
Any number divided by zero is undefined.

When you don't understand the foundations this just becomes a game of which "rule" takes priority. For the purposes of this discussion, the "no division by zero" always takes priority over any other rule at play.
>>
>>17038242
None of this matters; the divisors of a perfect number don't sum to it.
>>
>>17038242
Then would zero divided by zero be undefined or also zero? what rules are there in math? did someone just come up with it?
>>
>>17038243
What do you mean it does not sum to it? Does 1 not add up as 1 by itself?
>>
>>17038245
Perfect number doesn't do that.
>>
>>17038247
What does a perfect number do?
>>
>>17038248
Divisors sum to twice the number/
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>>17038250
(2^(p-1))((2^p)-1)
What does this equation represent then if its not for classifying perfect numbers?
>>
>>17038244
9 times out of 10, we're operating under ZFC set theory. Search that term up and you'll find pretty much all the foundational rules of modern math that most people follow.
>>
>>17038255
It does do that. Perfect number adds up to two times divisors.
>>
>>17038257
Perfect number has nothing to do with ZFC
>>
>>17038259
That wasn't the point I was responding to.
(And technically it depends on your definition of "having to do with" but that's semantics)
>>
>>17038260
How does ZFC have anything "technical" to do with what a perfect number is? (Note that by intentionally adding the C to ZF, you've constrained the answer to be dependent on that axiom.)
>>
>>17038264
>by intentionally adding the C to ZF, you've constrained the answer to be dependent on that axiom
Incorrect. Your premise is flawed. Inclusion of the axiom of choice makes the statement more inclusive, not exclusive.
Evoking a system which includes the axiom of choice need not imply the thing I'm applying it to pertains to the axiom of choice.

To answer your original question: the set of perfect numbers has to do with set theory in the sense that it is a set.
>>
>>17038268
Nope, specifying ZFC implies something about C, specifically; it's like ordering an "ice cream cone"
>the set of perfect numbers has to do with set theory in the sense that it is a set.
How is the ability to choose exactly one element from the set of perfect numbers germane to its construction?
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>>17038258
Is that technically the proof for what perfect numbers are? Why would an equation exist just to exclude what it tries to find?
>>
>>17038277
Exclude what?
>>
>>17038268
>To answer your original question: the set of perfect numbers has to do with set theory in the sense that it is a set.
Does the equation define the set entirely?
>>
>>17038280
>Exclude what?
0 and 1 as perfect numbers p_0 and p_1.
>>
>>17038274
>specifying ZFC implies something about C, specifically; it's like ordering an "ice cream cone"
Wrong. You are imposing an arbitrary rule of language that only exists in your own mind.
What I was doing was more like evoking UFC rules in a fighting competition and you're sperging about the rule in question also being in place in other combat leagues.
>>
>>17038283
What are the divisors of 1?
>>17038284
https://simple.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zermelo–Fraenkel_set_theory
>>
>>17038286
>What are the divisors of 1?
1
>>
>>17038202
>Then 1 is a super perfect prime because it only has 1 as its divisor.
...and dividing 1 means that it is a unit and thus not prime.
>>
>>17038289
What's the sum of 1? It's 1. Two times 1 is 2. So 1 can't be perfect number.
>>
>>17038290
>...and dividing 1 means that it is a unit and thus not prime.
What would a unit mean in this context? Is it that it itself is the number that calls for units?
>>
>>17038295
a unit is anything which you can multiply by something to get 1. or, equivalently, something which divides 1
in the naturals 1 is the only unit
in the integers -1 is also a unit
in the rationals, everything but 0 is a unit
>>
>>17038292
>What's the sum of 1? It's 1. Two times 1 is 2. So 1 can't be perfect number.
So it has to be multiplied by 2? Then how is 6 a perfect number if 12 times 2 is 24?
>>
>>17038300
What are the divisors of 6?
>>
>>17038292
I don't think 2 is a divisor of 1
>>
>>17038308
See >>17038289
>>
>>17038302
>What are the divisors of 6?
Are you not saying that (1+2+3+6+12)*2=24 is how a perfect number is found?
After all you did 1*2=2 therefore 1 is not a perfect number so is 6
>>
>>17038309
Yes 1 is the divisor of 1.
>>
>>17038310
12 isn't a divisor of 6
>>17038313
What's the sum of 1?
>>
>>17038286
That wiki link does not make the point you think it makes.
>>
>>17038315
see >>17038308
>>
>>17038317
Sentence 3 restricts to S1; S1 doesn't restrict S3.
>>
>>17038320
Using a system that includes an axiom does not indicate that particular axiom is being evoked.
>>
>>17038323
It does when you append C to the standard ZF; exactly like ordering an "ice cream cone" evokes the cone, not just the ice cream.
>>
>>17038319
See >>17038289
>>
>>17038329
see >>17038308
>>
>>17038331
Do you see 2 here >>17038289
>>
>>17038336
Do you?
>>
>>17038341
No, do you?
>>
>>17038345
Then why are you asking?
>>
>>17038347
See>>17038310
>>
>>17038349
see >>17038292
>>
>>17038358
Where is 2 here? >>17038289
>>
>>17038328
If you order an ice cream cone, you can still reference the ice cream independently of the cone. This is just a laughably bad argument you're trying to make and I doubt you've even convinced yourself by it.
>>
File: 1726318283631564.gif (3.89 MB, 278x249)
3.89 MB GIF
>>17038388
Lol what. I wouldn't order an ice cream cone unless I were expecting a cone with my ice cream. Would you?



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