Alright, so let's say, for whatever reason, the Virginia Colony maintains systems of long indenturehood rather than evolving to slaveholding, which only happened due to the ruling of one judge, how would this kind of manorial sharecropping system be effected by the Revolution? Slavery was able to survive it, but would 1700s indentured sharecropping be able to? Note: not all the indentures would be white, as in fact, historically not all were either. While the majority were British/Irish, there was a sizeable contigent of African indentures too (this is where the original slave population of the U.S South was sourced from).
