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Anonymous
 No.16959698
File: 1776380621071008.jpg (76 KB, 693x1024)
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No.16959698
Why are so many distant theorems equivalent to the riemann hypothesis?? Doesn't that make it impossible to prove because you have to prove 40 theorems at once?
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Anonymous
 No.16959700
No.16959700
File: cat blunt.png (24 KB, 120x120)
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>>16959698
Would
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Anonymous
 No.16962022
No.16962022
>>16959698
Because you only need to prove one of those theorems, when you do that, you prove that there is a proof to the other 39 theorems.
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