P: Conquest, not labour is prior to property. (The common law of property only developed after the Norman Conquest. Generally, continental property law only developed after Roman expansion in Italy, finally perfected in the Justinian code after centuries of conquest. Additionally, if labour created property, all chattel slaves who worked land once emancipated would've owned land, but they did not, so labour does not create property.)O1: The very first human civilizations (Mycenae, Sumeria, China) etc peacefully developed by homesteading.O2: An eternal property law is in an unconquered Platonic world of forms, which says labour creates property.R to O1: On the contrary, Mycenae was a palace economy, Sumeria had a temple-brothel economy and China had a ceremonial monarchist economy with Yu the Great implementing public infrastructure works - there was no homesteading like the US.R to O2: Since the world of forms is common to thinkers, at what point does that world of forms itself become property of any particular thinker to intelligibly ground property? On the contrary, property is merely opinion.P: The state is prior to conquest (A band of robbers can only loot chattel, rape women, they cannot tax land nor marry without government. With government, a body of men appear legitimate, tax, judge, military commander, a proper army etc. The Germanic takeover of the former western Roman Empire was only possible due to Germanic imitation of Roman government forms).O: Some states appear unconquered (Empire of Japan, Turkey, Iran, China)R to O: A revolution is effectively identical to conquest, as a different power now wields the state (Iran, Chinese dynastic succession). Additionally, conquests are not necessarily by the same causes - the modern laws of Japan are a soft conquest by the US over Meiji law and Turkey was longed influenced by Europe before its current republic.C: The state is prior to property. (contra Locke)
